![]() (where F represents the applied force, m is the inertial mass and d 2x/dt 2 is the acceleration). Published, some thirty years after the death of Newton, by the Swiss-born mathematician, Leonhard So let us come to the same conclusion using the familiar mathematical formula for Newton's second law which was The argumentation presented above uses the logic of categorical statements but some might be more familiar with the mathematical exposition. The second, and if it is nothing more than a consequence of the second, then the first law is redundant. In other words, it appears that the first law can be derived from The conclusion is that a change in velocity can only occur if a force is present. Premise 2: If there is no acceleration then there is no change in velocityĬonclusion: If there is no force then there is no change in velocity Premise 1: If there is no force then there is no acceleration The velocity is decreasing.) No acceleration means no change in velocity (The acceleration, of course, can be negative meaning that Is that an acceleration means a change in velocity. The second premise is the definition of acceleration. The first premise comes directly from Newton's second law which asserts that "force isĮqual to mass multiplied by acceleration". Two premises lead to a deductiveĬonclusion. The "redundancy hypothesis" argument is easy to understand. Such a mistake but the argument supporting this "redundancy hypothesis" is so convincing that doubts Laws when two would have been adequate? It seems unlikely that this colossus of science would make Could it be that the first law is redundant? Did Newton give us three But Newton's first law, for this minority, is seen to be just aĬonsequence of the second law. Third laws appear to be totally independent of each other. But for some non-professional physicists they raise doubts 2.įor these sceptics Newton's first law of motion does not seem to have the same status as the other two. These laws have been handed down generation to generation.
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